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Questions and Answers

Q: In describing Jesus, I've heard the phrase over and over, "Fully God and fully man." My question is, is that a quoted phrase from the Bible or is it an interpretation or extrapolation commonly used from the pulpit? If this (or words to this effect) are an actual quote, where can I find it?

Answer: The phrase 'fully God and fully man' is not to be found within Scripture (as far as I have been able to determine). This is a phrase used to simplify the incarnation of Christ.

God, the Son, would not come as God, but as a 'Man'. He would be God incarnate; God in human flesh! Deity would unite with humanity. This is referred to as the hypostatic union. John Walvoord defines this union:

"Because the attributes of either nature belong to Christ, Christ is theanthropic in nature, but it is not accurate to refer to His natures as being theanthropic as there is no mixture of the divine and human to form a new third substance. The human nature always remains human, and the divine nature always remains divine. Christ is therefore both God and Man, no less God because of His humanity and no less human because of His deity."[1]

Man's Redeemer would be 100% God and 100% Man. John described the union as, "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God. . . .And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.", John 1:1-2, 14."


[1] John F. Walvoord. JESUS CHRIST OUR LORD. (Chicago, Illinois: Moody Publishers, 1996). 115.








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